Question about Melchizedec

Discussion in 'Bible Study' started by MartyLK, Apr 24, 2007.

  1. Question about Melchizedek

    I am uncertain who this is. My teaching says possibly Jesus pre-incarnate.

    Scripture (NIV) Hebrews 7:3 show 2 distinct beings.

    Hebrews 7:6 refers to him as a "man".

    Difficult to understand given there are only 3 persons of the trinity, Father, Son and Holy Spirit.

    Yet Melchizedek is eternal. having neither beginning of days or end of life.

    There is another who hasn't had an end of life, Elijah. He was taken up to heaven so that he didn't see death. But he had a beginning.

    Hebrews 7:16 says he is indestructible.

    He isn't a spirit so the Holy Spirit he isn't.

    He is refered to as...well, first of all, "He" and a "life" and "living" as well as a "man"...but only in some I don't believe Melchizedek is an office.

    Hmmmm.....Who do you all think he is? You have a 1 in 3 chance to get it right. I say Jesus...or more accurately, the Son of God.
  2. A Homework Assignment -

    MartyLK - As a 'homework assignment', you may wish to take a look at Genesis 14:17-24 (KJV) and Psalms 110 (KJV) for a couple significant mentions in some very early time periods, Biblically speaking.

    There are two spellings in the King James Version: "Melchizedek" as used in Genesis and Psalms from the Hebrew manuscript texts (as listed above) and - "Melchisedec" as used in Hebrews 5:6-10 (KJV), Hebrews 6:20 (KJV), Hebrews 7:1-21 (KJV) from the Greek manuscript texts.

    Check your Strong's Concordance for HEBREW Word # 4442 and GREEK Word # 3198. I'm certain that this info will assist you in studying the origins and true reference meanings.
  3. So, your take?

    Thanks for the verses. I wonder what the significance is in the two spellings? Maybe showing a new order? That when Christ finished his work of salvation, all things became new...a new order?

    EDIT -
    Ah...I spelled it wrong! It is spelled the same in my new and old testaments. I knew I shoulda looked at the name before I posted....:eek:
  4. Marty - as we look specifically at Psalm 110 (KJV), the wording from the original Hebrew language manuscripts means that this Psalm is referring to God speaking to His Son, the manifestation of what would become Christ in the flesh here on earth and His duties. Note the word 'LORD' in all capital letters and the word 'Lord' with just the first letter capitalized. Those refer to 'LORD' (God) and 'Lord' (Christ) from the original translated Hebrew texts.

    Also, please refer to John 1:1-51 (KJV) especially the first couple of verses... The "Word" (Christ) has been with God forever in Spirit... a part of the Trinity.

    We also know from Christ's own words in John 14 (KJV) especially verse 7, that, "... ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him."

    Therefore, there should be little doubt that the references in Genesis 14 (KJV) and in Psalm 110 (KJV) are the same as mentioned in Hebrews 7 (KJV)... for ever, for always and for eternity... Jesus Christ.

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