This is addressing the actual meaning of "no man has seen God at any time". John 1:18No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. When it says in John 1:18 that no man has seen God at any time, this is not referring to the appearances of the Son of God in the past, but to man not having seen God the Father, BUT the only begotten Son has seen the Father which is why He can declare Him. That verse below is another way of saying that verse above. John 6:46Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father. Jesus as the Son of God Whom is of God, He has seen God the Father. For two references to the Son of God as being seen by men in the past before His incarnation: Genesis 18th chapter & Genesis 32:24-30 So no man having seen God is referring to not having seen God the Father, because Moses had written that man has seen the Son of God. Jesus testified that one day we will see the Father as well when He ceases to be our Mediator, then we can ask the Father face to face. John 16:25 These things have I spoken unto you in proverbs: but the time cometh, when I shall no more speak unto you in proverbs, but I shall shew you plainly of the Father. 26 At that day ye shall ask in my name: and I say not unto you, that I will pray the Father for you: 27 For the Father himself loveth you, because ye have loved me, and have believed that I came out from God. 28 I came forth from the Father, and am come into the world: again, I leave the world, and go to the Father.