So, as we're all aware of from some secularists is that the OT allows polygamy. Regardless of the legal ramifications why are we so harsh on it? Additionally, the polygamous nature of some OT accounts has some implications about our understanding of adultery. That is, in most accounts I've read adultery is concerned with unfaithfulness on the woman's part. Notice Mathew 5:31-32 speaks exclusively about the woman and her new husband being guilty but not the first husband (note the NLT writes this differently from a literal translation). Have we misunderstood the meaning of scripture?