Discussion in 'Bible Study' started by smellycat, Jun 10, 2008.
i see they have not changed Jesus words.tricky this satan .
Sorry but I really do not understand. What words have they not changed? Who do you mean by they?
I want to understand but I will need some help.
Jesus says the book of esias,which has changed to isaiah.but Jesus told us the truth it is esias.
also what Jesus quoted from that book ,is not what it says in isaiah 61 1-3.so we know there has either been tampering or luke misquoted Jesus.
Jesus quoted the heart of the scripture but not verbatim. He also spoke Aramaic as opposed to the Hebrew Isaiah was written in this the difference in enunciation. In the English language we call Him Jesus but in His day He was called Joshua or Yashua. The person is non the less the same.
how can Jesus read esias ,and when we read isiaha.the 2 don,t match.if both are translated in the same way then both should match word for word.seems like something is a miss.
I say potatoe you say pototoe - is there really any difference made by a different pronunciation. We say Jesus yet the Hebrews do not have a letter J yet we still know who we are talking about. Anyway I won't argue the point it is more of an FYI.
i,m on about scripture,isaiah.60.1-3.they don,t match.
What are you comparing it with?
Are these the two scripture passages you mean?
"1 Arise, shine; for thy light is come, and the glory of the LORD is risen upon thee. 2 For, behold, the darkness shall cover the earth, and gross darkness the people: but the LORD shall arise upon thee, and his glory shall be seen upon thee.
3 And the Gentiles shall come to thy light, and kings to the brightness of thy rising."
"32 A light to lighten the Gentiles, and the glory of thy people Israel."
no.isaiah 61 1-2.luke 4-18-19.
I don't see the problem.
"1The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; 2To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;"
"18The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
19To preach the acceptable year of the Lord."
both translated from hebrew,but diffrent,the question is why,Jesus read this verse,but both are diffrent,why.?
Please tell us what difference you are seeing.
that is the problem ever word should be the same.
The difference comes in the language.
Isaiah was written in Hebrew, Jesus spoke Aramaic, the Gospel was written in Greek.
There are differences in English translations, so one should expect some differences between three different languages.
The fact that each individual word does not match doesn't mean there was a mistranslation or tampering.
Remember, Jesus was speaking about Himself. Luke 4:20-1 read:
Where did you see where Jesus said the book Isaiah was originally called Esias, S.C.?
Do you think that Jesus knew what He was talking about? He never quoted scripture Word for Word but always delivered the heart and intent of the message. The people in that Synagogue knew just what He meant also. It is not about the letter but about the Spirit.
i agree with you,and i know satan uses the words in different ways.this world is getting worse and worse for truth.