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Did Jesus Speak Hebrew Or Aramaic ???

Discussion in 'General Discussions' started by ixoye_8, Apr 23, 2014.

  1. xxx wrote:
    I am sure the Lord frequently spoke all three of those languages. Hebrew, the language of the Synagogue and Temple, Aramaic, the language of the common folk of Galilee, and Greek, the language of both the ruling foreign and domestic classes.

    xxx wrote:
    I agree.
    Prof. Ian Young, who teaches Aramaic in the Dept. of Hebrew, Biblical and Jewish Studies, Univ. of Sydney, also suggests the same thing, see Post #2125.

    ixoye_8 wrote:
    I think that professor is all wet ..
    1 - if Aramaic was the language of the common folk, then Pilate would have written it in Aramaic NOT Hebrew, so the common folk could read it ..

    on what evidence does Mw or the professor base such a claim ???
    I bet the answer is NONE that gives it definitive support ..
    so they should at least be honest and say "possibly or possibly not" instead of making a positive statement ..

    2 - my research seems to suggest Aramaic was not the most common language until after 136 ad, when the Jews were expelled by Hadrian .. even their evolved versions of Hebrew in diaspora stemmed from Hebrew, NOT Aramaic .. so it does NOT appear to have been the common language, because they did NOT bring the Aramaic with them .. However Paul most likely would have spoke Aramaic in Damascus .. the Syriac Peshetta is Aramaic because the Syrians have Assyro/Babylonian influence even in their blood ..

    3 - another thing you may want to be aware of, is after the book of Daniel (w/Aramaic) the next books are written in Hebrew all the way through Maccabees showing it was not then commonly adopted, but primarily abandoned ..

    speaking of Hadrian, he renamed Judea to Palestine ..
    so before 136 ad and after 1948 ad the use of the name is incorrect ..
    because it didn't exist prior nor does it exist anymore ..

    hence Jesus was never in a land named Palestine ..
    nor is there a people called Palestinians ..
    they are citizens of Israel, who vote in it's elections and pay taxes ..
    they are correctly called Arab-Israeli's ..

    ISRAEL ..
    Jewish population = 6,102,000 (75.2%) ..
    Arab population = 1,682,000 (20.6%) ..
    other population = 4.2% ..
    mainly Armenian (Christians) ..

    4 - Why does John translate into Hebrew and not Aramaic ???

    Jhn 5:2 Now there is in Jerusalem by the sheep gate a pool, which is called in Hebrew Bethesda, having five porticoes.

    Jhn 19:13 Therefore when Pilate heard these words, he brought Jesus out, and sat down on the judgment seat at a place called The Pavement, but in Hebrew, Gabbatha.

    Jhn 19:17 They took Jesus, therefore, and He went out, bearing His own cross, to the place called the Place of a Skull, which is called in Hebrew, Golgotha.

    Rev 9:11 They have as king over them, the angel of the abyss; his name in Hebrew is Abaddon, and in the Greek he has the name Apollyon.

    Rev 16:16 And they gathered them together to the place which in Hebrew is called Har-Magedon.

    reiterated ..
    Jhn 19:20 Therefore many of the Jews read this inscription, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city; and it was written in Hebrew, Latin and in Greek.

    5 - Why does Mary M speak in Hebrew NOT Aramaic ???
    Jhn 20:16 Jesus said to her, “Mary!” She turned and said to Him in Hebrew, “Rabboni!” (which means, Teacher).

    6 - Why does Paul speak in Hebrew and NOT Aramaic ???
    Act 21:40 When he had given him permission, Paul, standing on the stairs, motioned to the people with his hand; and when there was a great hush, he spoke to them in the Hebrew dialect, saying,

    7 - Why does Jesus speak in Hebrew and NOT Aramaic ???
    Act 26:14 “And when we had all fallen to the ground, I heard a voice saying to me in the Hebrew dialect, ‘Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting Me? It is hard for you to kick against the goads.'

    8 - Why is the Aramaic language not even mentioned after the book of Daniel ???

    here is another poor assumption ..
    many think Hebrew was mandatory for reading scripture in the Temple and synagogues .. it was read that way BECAUSE it was mandatory to use the original script for writing/re-coping of the Torah .. thus you automatically read it in Hebrew because that script is what the Torah was in ..

    from Wiki ..
    Around the 6th century BCE, the Neo-Babylonian Empire conquered the ancient Kingdom of Judah, destroying much of Jerusalem and exiling its population far to the East in Babylon. During the Babylonian captivity, many Israelites were enslaved within the Babylonian Empire and learned the closely related Semitic language of their captors, Aramaic.
    (actually, Aramaic is closer to Arabic then Hebrew)

    Hebrew had ceased to be an everyday spoken language by around 200 CE.
    (because Hadrian expelled the Jews from Judea on "pain of death" )

    The Imperial Aramaic script of the earlier scrolls in the 3rd century BCE evolved into the Hebrew square script of the later scrolls in the 1st century CE, also known as ketav Ashuri (Assyrian script),

    Mishnaic Hebrew from the 1st to the 3rd or 4th century CE, corresponding to the Roman Period after the destruction of the Temple in Jerusalem and represented by the bulk of the Mishnah and Tosefta within the Talmud and by the Dead Sea Scrolls, notably the Bar Kokhba Letters and the Copper Scroll. Also called Tannaitic Hebrew or Early Rabbinic Hebrew.

    Sometimes the above phases of spoken Classical Hebrew are simplified into "Biblical Hebrew" (including several dialects from the 10th century BCE to 2nd century BCE and extant in certain Dead Sea Scrolls) and "Mishnaic Hebrew" (including several dialects from the 3rd century BCE to the 3rd century CE and extant in certain other Dead Sea Scrolls).[21] However, today, most Hebrew linguists classify Dead Sea Scroll Hebrew as a set of dialects evolving out of Late Biblical Hebrew and into Mishnaic Hebrew, thus including elements from both but remaining distinct from either.[22] By the start of the Byzantine Period in the 4th century CE, Classical Hebrew ceases as a regularly spoken language, roughly a century after the publication of the Mishnah, apparently declining since the aftermath of the catastrophic Bar Kokhba War around 135 CE.
    (which concurs with what I said)

    By the beginning of the Common Era Aramaic was the primary colloquial language [dubious – discuss] (I totally agree it is unsubstantiated) of Samarian, Babylonian and Galileean Jews, and western and intellectual Jews spoke Greek, [citation needed] (once again I totally agree it is unsubstantiated) but a form of so-called Rabbinic Hebrew continued to be used as a vernacular in Judea until it was displaced by Aramaic, probably in the 3rd century CE. Certain Sadducee, Pharisee, Scribe, Hermit, Zealot and Priest classes maintained an insistence on Hebrew, and all Jews maintained their identity with Hebrew songs and simple quotations from Hebrew texts.[24][25][26] Other opinions exist on the exact date range from the 4th century BCE to the end of the Roman period.
    (the date given would be close and would coincide with the expulsion of Jews lifted)

    The Dead Sea Scrolls, uncovered in 1946-1948 near Qumran revealed ancient Jewish texts overwhelmingly in Hebrew, not Aramaic.

    The Qumran scrolls indicate that Hebrew texts were readily understandable to the average Israelite, and that the language had evolved since Biblical times as spoken languages do.[note 4] Recent scholarship recognizes that reports of Jews speaking in Aramaic indicates a multilingual society, not necessarily the primary language spoken.

    Most scholars now date the demise of Hebrew as a spoken language to the end of the Roman Period, or about 200 CE.[30]
    (my guess is closer to 400, as the ECF were using both Greek and Hebrew scripture to translate into Latin)


    so yes, those who hold the view that Aramaic was the principal language of the Jews while Jesus was here, are ignoring the evidence and presenting none that refutes it ..
    aka an imagined view needing updating ..
  2. This really bothers me because my sister is a Rasta and she believes Jesus spoke Aramaic so therefore Hebrew is the incorrect language.

    I LOL, I know the name of our God and savior is Hebrew, Yahuah is supposedly the correct pronunciation. The Yod, He, Uau, He. The Yod, He, Uau make the sound Yahu, which ends alot of names in the old testament. And the He at the end makes it sound Yahu-ah. And the name of our messiah is Yahusha, or, Yahuah saves. I looked a lot of this up, but I realize I could be wrong. Some call him Yahweh, or LORD. Others call our savior Jesus, Yeshua, Yehoshua, or Yahushua. But I believe in Yahuah and Yahusha.
  3. #3 ixoye_8, May 4, 2014
    Last edited: May 4, 2014
    the Rasta religion bothers me and openly refutes scripture in some of their beliefs ..
    you should ask her on WHAT evidence is her understanding that Jesus normally spoke Aramaic based ???

    Yahuveh (transliteration) ..
    Yah = God's name (meaning: is/exists)
    huveh = will exist
    a derivative from hō·weh (see strongs 1933) or from hĕ·wêh (see strongs 1933)
    note: the word remains the same either way (o or e) and Strongs assigns the same reference number ..

    Yahshua (transliteration) ..
    Yah = God's name (meaning: is/exists)
    shua = saves/is salvation

    He came in His father's name .. Yahh ..
    Jhn 5:43 "I have come in My Father's name, and you do not receive Me; if another comes in his own name, you will receive him.
    (this can be taken literally)

    note: Yahh (or Yah when presented as a compound word) is God's personal name ..
    (see Psa 68:4, Isa 12:2, Isa 26:4 & Isa 38:11)
  4. #4 ixoye_8, May 4, 2014
    Last edited: May 4, 2014
    Exodus 3:14 hayah 'asher hayah ..

    if you give it a "general translation" as you THINK it was written, then "I AM BECAUSE I AM would be closer ..

    as "because" gives us God's existence IS "because" He "IS GOD" .. meaning because He IS GOD, is WHY He exists .. aka no power has any dominion besides Him ..

    so which way did the author mean it to be read ???
    hayah OR ha-Yah OR both (multitasking) ???

    1 word = I AM (is/exists) ..
    2 words = the-Yah ..

    which actually then would not even be addressing WHY He exists, but rather WHY He is sovereign .. (I Am) "the only God" because (I am) "the only God" .

    Exo 6:3 and I appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob, as God Almighty, but by My name, Yah-uvea, I did not make Myself known to them.

    in the common perception (as 1 word) God merely "beats around the bush" (no pun intended) and NEVER really answers Moses .. when in fact (as 2 words) God directly answers Mose "what His name is" ..

    so basically .. most think God never answered Moses, but He did ..

    hence ..
    hayah or ha-Yah = is/exists or "the-existence/the-that is"


    huveh (transliteration of) hō·weh or hĕ·wêh = will be/is becoming or more correctly will exist

    so THERE is the future tense, whereas the word in question carries all 3 tenses .. thus simply translated as "is or exists" or in common understanding God is saying "I AM and I will be" or in the Greek: "the alpha and the omega" (eternity to eternity) ..

    which brings up if actually the past tense WAS, then the future tense WILL BE, are both the actual intent in the general (all tense) word used twice ..

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