Are We Smarter Than God?

Our morality comes from our experiences as a social organism. It comes from what works toward functioning societies.

And racism has not always been seen as objectively wrong throughout all human history. In fact, western societies oftentimes cited their Christian faith as justification for their racism.

I'm glad you mentioned that, because that's partly my point. Of course during the era of slavery in the US, people were using Christianity to justify it. Of course they were wrong and mistranslating Christian practice. But even before the concept of slavery went into practice, it was objectively wrong because it dismisses the dignity of individuals.

It means our morality is subjective. Looking across human culture and history, that's a self-evident fact. God's morality however is objective. But as you note, God's morality is not ours. If God simply imposed His morality upon us, then we would not have true free will.

Ahh, indeed. I think you are on the ball here.

But you're looking at it from your POV. The very definition of "subjective" means your POV differs from others'.

Subjective means a POV based on personal taste, opinion, etc. Our favorite ice cream flavors are subjective, but the fact that ice cream melts in 90 degree weather is objective. I don't think a POV automatically means something is subjective. For instance, if you believe in God, then you're not claiming God's existence is subjective--you're statement is that God is real, even if people choose not to believe it.
 
I'm glad you mentioned that, because that's partly my point. Of course during the era of slavery in the US, people were using Christianity to justify it. Of course they were wrong and mistranslating Christian practice. But even before the concept of slavery went into practice, it was objectively wrong because it dismisses the dignity of individuals.
Except they would argue just as strongly that it is you who is wrong and is misreading scripture. After all, they would merely have to point to OT laws on the treatment of slaves, and orders by God to take slaves, as clear and unambiguous indications that slavery is moral.

Ahh, indeed. I think you are on the ball here.
Awesome! Thanks!


Subjective means a POV based on personal taste, opinion, etc. Our favorite ice cream flavors are subjective, but the fact that ice cream melts in 90 degree weather is objective. I don't think a POV automatically means something is subjective. For instance, if you believe in God, then you're not claiming God's existence is subjective--you're statement is that God is real, even if people choose not to believe it.
Subjective means there's no independently verifiable, objective means to differentiate which POV is correct. That's why things like "right, wrong, better, worse" are subjective terms.

As far as God's existence, God is real for me. But when atheists tell me God isn't real for them, I believe them. I think there are reasons why God isn't real for them, but that doesn't change the fact that from their POV, God isn't real. To better understand this, think of a Hindu. To her, Vishnu is very, very real. Vishnu isn't real to me however. But she believes in Vishnu just as strongly as I do in Jesus. What independently verifiable and objective means do we use to definitively establish who is correct?

If you can figure that out, you will have solved much of the world's problems. ;)
 
Except they would argue just as strongly that it is you who is wrong and is misreading scripture. After all, they would merely have to point to OT laws on the treatment of slaves, and orders by God to take slaves, as clear and unambiguous indications that slavery is moral.

Indeed, we would disagree. However, it would further be a disagreement on doctrine. The Catholic Church, to which I belong, was in support of the abolitionists. Catholics who did keep slaves in captivity (like the conquistadors in the Americas), were going against Catholic teaching.

As far as God's existence, God is real for me. But when atheists tell me God isn't real for them, I believe them. I think there are reasons why God isn't real for them, but that doesn't change the fact that from their POV, God isn't real. To better understand this, think of a Hindu. To her, Vishnu is very, very real. Vishnu isn't real to me however. But she believes in Vishnu just as strongly as I do in Jesus. What independently verifiable and objective means do we use to definitively establish who is correct?

If you can figure that out, you will have solved much of the world's problems. ;)

I have to disagree with this. Call me old fashioned, but I do believe in objective truths. The fact that the universe came into existence has to mean that something caused it. Now HOW it was caused and by whom is often the subject of disagreement, but each side is arguing in the defense of an objective truth. I've heard before "God's not real to me," and that might mean that they don't know and believe in God, but just because they don't know, believe, or understand what God is doesn't mean that he all of a sudden loses existence.

I hope this makes sense -- I babble too much :p
 
I think what Lysander is alluding to is that "reality does not care what you believe".
Not believing in trains wil not keep you from getting run over.

A statement is either true, false, or irrelevant, and it does not make any difference whatsoever whether
the audience agrees with reality or not.
Point of view is immaterial when discussing whether something is actually TRUE or not.
 
I think what Lysander is alluding to is that "reality does not care what you believe".
Not believing in trains wil not keep you from getting run over.

A statement is either true, false, or irrelevant, and it does not make any difference whatsoever whether
the audience agrees with reality or not.
Point of view is immaterial when discussing whether something is actually TRUE or not.

Yes, I do tend to get too wordy.
 
I agree that there are objective truths out there, including whether or not God exists. My point is that in the absence of an independently verifiable and objective means of identifying such truths, POV's on them are therefore subjective.

Am I making sense?

Let's say "The Christian God, as described in the Bible, exists" is an objective truth. What independently verifiable, objective means do we have to absolutely establish that as "truth"?

If there is none, then "God exists" is subjective until such a means is discovered.
 
I agree that there are objective truths out there, including whether or not God exists. My point is that in the absence of an independently verifiable and objective means of identifying such truths, POV's on them are therefore subjective.

Am I making sense?

Let's say "The Christian God, as described in the Bible, exists" is an objective truth. What independently verifiable, objective means do we have to absolutely establish that as "truth"?

If there is none, then "God exists" is subjective until such a means is discovered.

In other words if there isn't sound evidence for God's existence, then it remains subject?

I have to disagree here too. Granted, there is plenty of sound evidence for the existence of God, but even if there wasn't, to claim God's existence is subjective only because there isn't any evidence to make that conclusion would be an argument to ignorance. It's an illogical fallacy.
 
Let me be most clear, not that you accuse, but I am not an atheist nor to do I support a scientific method they use, nor do I define morality from a secular position. For I am a born again Christian.

If you read my quote in context I simply explain why the atheist will defend their position with secular methods, since faith is not in “their” equation. I simply responded from a standpoint of experience that they indeed will defend their positions with complexity using secular methods that is antagonistic to faith. I do not agree with them, thus I cannot defend the array of ambiguous positions for which they take in variance that you are in disagreement with. If I agreed with them then I would have not debated them from foundations of faith.

You make me feel embarrassed. Because it wasn’t a warm welcome. But here it is: welcome brother, and let me hug you dearly
Brother now that a hug has been added, I must boast even further concerning your Christian warmth and welcoming spirit, as gratitude permeates greatly, giving exemplar credence to the exampled love of Christ that issues forth from your postings.
Whole quote - In contrast to our virtuous faith in Christ, would you agree that secular metaphysics must use an intellectual scientific method to rationalize how the individual will traverse through evidential deduction to arrive at a philosophical truth? This philosophical truth then would define grounds for what can be or what cannot be moral? This is indeed a complex task to rationalize unto a solidified set of rules and many in secular society make it their mission to prescribe these boundaries unto extreme complexities, which can vary.

Yet shall truth revealed by the Holy Spirit transcend all secular thinking
Shall the whole quote need to be reflected to know that I am simply answering why an atheist (“not me”) will defend moral theoretical foundations.

For "the atheist" is "secular" and are not in faith, thus they must use a scientific method to define moral boundaries, as they will not use scripture to define it.

In contrast to our virtuous faith in Christ
I think that’s our problem, right there:
1. is our faith virtuous? Do our deeds rise to our words? Let alone God’s words?
2. how much of our faith do we put in Christ and how much in other people just like us?
In regard to the second point, saying that Genesis is a reflection of worldly paradigms for me it’s absurd to the highest possible degree. Especially since those paradigms are naturalistic (i.e. purposefully excluding God).

Shall the word "faith" be grammatically applied in context? Not as verb in the biblical context where our faith is unto scriptural action, but where “faith” is a noun as a competing premise to “secular reason” with the secular atheist. Thus to “be in the faith” is a virtuous position, and to “be in secular reason” is a lost position.

Yet to your point – faith is highly actionable in the word of God and will agree quickly that faith without works is dead. Shall Christians also in life often become guilty of exercising faith in mammon, or mankind.

would you agree that secular metaphysics must use an intellectual scientific method to rationalize how the individual will traverse through evidential deduction to arrive at a philosophical truth?
Sorry, but that question is loaded:

1. No, I wouldn’t agree that “secular metaphysics must use an intellectual scientific method”. And the reason for that is in the bold. In my view, for example metaphysics and physics shouldn’t have anything in common. But unfortunately, they do (see the big bang theory).

2. What exactly is the relation between “philosophical truth” and “scientific method”?

3. What exactly is the difference between the “philosophical truth” and the truth? In my view, the truth is true regardless if in philosophical context, scientific context or whatever context.

Again I do not support atheism or secular metaphysics unto moral theory, yet that is the foundational science for many atheists.

To the “atheist” not me - many of them use a scientific method to arrive at a philosophical truth such as the philosophy of Ojectivism. Yet I don’t agree with Objectivism.

A philosophical truth is truth defined by secular methods of evidence, deduction, science, and secular reason, which I do not agree with.

I agree with you that Christ is the truth and provides the ultimate measure for all things that can be true.

This philosophical truth then would define grounds for what can be or what cannot be moral?
Sorry, but I can’t agree with that either. Instead, I think God defined what’s moral and what not. In our hearts but also in the Bible.

I agree with you, but atheists often believe this rigidly.
 
To better understand this, think of a Hindu. To her, Vishnu is very, very real. Vishnu isn't real to me however. But she believes in Vishnu just as strongly as I do in Jesus. What independently verifiable and objective means do we use to definitively establish who is correct?

How about all the prophecies foretold in the Bible, that came true, some of them millennia later?

I purposefully chose Hugh Ross to make it easier for you, because I know you also have huge problems with a literal Bible, just as he does:
http://www.reasons.org/articles/art...ecy-evidence-for-the-reliability-of-the-bible
“Approximately 2500 prophecies appear in the pages of the Bible, about 2000 of which already have been fulfilled to the letter - no errors.”


Can you show me such predictions in other faiths? Not two thousands, but at least 100? How about only 10? Or even only 5? Tell you what: why don’t you show me a single major prediction in any religion in the world, other than Judaism and Christianity.

By major prediction I mean something in the league of Jews returning to their land (Israel). Or the cosmic expansion, predicted in the Bible millennia before the big bang theory. (Ironically, expansion lately turned to disprove the big bang, but it still proves the Bible right and that’s all that matters).

Now, just as I don’t agree with Ross’ physics (big bang, but also Einstein’s GR), I also don’t agree with his maths (I changed the form of the number in the quote below, because I found that this forum apparently doesn’t allow numbers with powers):
“the odds for all these prophecies having been fulfilled by chance without error is less than one in 10^2000 (that is 1 with 2000 zeros written after it)!”


Actually, it’s not 2000 zeroes - it’s immensely more than that. Ross himself gives an indication to that by presenting 13 prophecies and concluding that the chance for fulfilling all those prophecies is 1 in 10^138 (1 followed by 138 zeroes), which is obviously different than 10^13 - by many orders of magnitude.

So it’s not that we simply put the number of the prophecies as the power. Instead, it depends on each prophecy, and there are so many prophecies that cannot have, in my view, a chance lower than 1 in 100. Because the factors involved in each prophecy are almost always larger in number than 100.

Which means a larger minimum for all prophecies than what Ross claims:
“since the probability for any one of these prophecies having been fulfilled by chance averages less than one in ten (figured very conservatively)”.

[ But even such a minimum, his minimum, would lead to a number one order of magnitude larger than the number he presents: 10^2000. ]

However, it’s true that some prophecies depend upon one other (are connected), so the end result will have to be adjusted for that.

It’s also true that other sources give a lower number of prophecies - for example J. Barton Payne’sEncyclopedia of Biblical Prophecylists a total of a total of 1,817 for the entire Bible (both the Old Testament and the New Testament).

So in the end let’s accept the number Ross gave, to have an actual number to talk about. So let’s take it as chance of all those 2000 prophecies fulfillment as 1 in 10^2000 (that’s 1 in the number of 1 followed by 2000 zeroes).

Now, Ross makes a very poor job of putting that number into perspective, so let me help you with that:

either try to write down 2000 consecutive zeroes, or think about this:

(all figures presented below are mainstream numbers; I don’t agree with some of them, but you do agree with them - and that’s all that matters here)

The observable universe is 10^26 m (meters) in size; its mass is 10^53 kg.

A galaxy usually has the size of 10^21 m and the mass of 10^42 kg.

Now, compare each of those latter numbers respectively with the previous numbers. Note that a galaxy’s size is only 5 orders of magnitude smaller than the entire observable universe. Do you now have a perspective of what the number 10^2000 means? That’s 2000 orders of magnitude!

Let’s continue: a single star, such as the Sun, has the aprox. size of 10^10 m and the mass of 10^30 kg.

Again, compare those numbers respectively with the previous set of numbers. Yes, there are only eleven orders of magnitude between the size of a star and that of a full galaxy (hundreds of billions of stars). Now compare a number with 11 zeroes with a number with 2000 zeroes. Quite a road, right?

Let’s continue: a continent such as Africa or Australia would have these numbers: 10^7 m, 10^17 kg. Compare those numbers with the numbers for a star. Yes, a continent is only three orders of magnitude (aprox. 1000 times) smaller than a star (the diameter of a star). OK, the Sun is not the biggest star, far from it, but still, you can have an idea. (Sun’s diameter is about 109 times that of Earth.)

And many mountains (not the Andes, as this is the longest, and in general not the longer mountain ranges) would have these numbers: 10^4 m, 10^8 kg.

Finally, consider one star. And then consider all the stars in the observable universe (that is, not the stars that astronomers can observe now, but the stars that they’ll ever be able to observe - all this if big bang is true, of course). The difference between those two numbers is 7 × 10^22. That’s ‘only’ 22 orders of magnitude. Compare this with 2000 orders of magnitude.

Now do you have a real perspective of what 10^2000 means? That’s really huge. So huge that there is nothing in the universe that can materialize that number. Even if you take the smallest thing in the universe (the smallest thing mainstream scientists claim to be ever able to observe, the smallest possible length: Planck length), which is 10^-33, and then take the largest possible thing scientists could ever observe in the universe. Which is not actually, even if big bang would be true, the observable universe, but only about 2 thirds of that: 62 billion light years instead of 93 bly. But let’s consider, as above, the figure of 10^26 m.

So the separation between the smallest thing ever (for mainstream scientists) and the largest thing ever (for mainstream scientists) is only of 59 orders of magnitude. And the difference (actually proportion) between 2000 orders of magnitude and 59 orders of magnitude is 1941 orders of magnitude. Indeed, you barely took anything out of that 2000, isn’t it?

So now you could have a perspective of what 2000 orders of magnitude mean: you take an entire universe out of that, and you can barely notice.

And if you somehow believe in mainstream nonsense such as string theory, then this is the number you’re concerned with: 10^500.

Yes, they must postulate the existence of 10^500 universes (instead of just one: ours) in order for them to ‘explain’ away our anthropic universe (in other words, to get rid of God).

But even if we take away all those universes from 10^1941, we are still left with 10^1441. That’s how huge that number, 10^2000, really is: if we take out not only this universe, but all the other universes some of us can think of and we’re still left with a number immensely huge (much larger than everything that was taken out).

Indeed, a chance of 1 in 10^2000 actually means one single chance in a billion of billions of billions […] of billions. A zero more zero than any human mind can conceive. And yet God couldn’t care less about our maths and fulfilled all those prophecies. Proof that we shouldn’t use worldly views (be them actually scientific or not), but instead put our faith in Him. How about that…

So, does all this respond to your question:
“But she believes in Vishnu just as strongly as I do in Jesus. What independently verifiable and objective means do we use to definitively establish who is correct?”


And even if you cut that 10^2000 number down to please Hindu mathematicians or even atheistic mathematicians (they would most likely dismiss many prophecies, as well as increase the chances of success for the remaining ones), you’d still obtain a number larger than 10^80. Which is, by the way, the number of all the atoms in the formal universe. Now you tell me, if we presume they’re all within your reach, how do you call the chance to ‘catch’ one particular atom from all 10^80 atoms? Great? Small? How about zero…


If you can figure that out, you will have solved much of the world's problems.

Well, I did that just above - and many (probably thousands) other Christians before me. Now you tell me: did it solve “much of the world's problems”? Did it solve any of world's problems?

Of course not. Simply because the world wants to be without God. It has always wanted that.


Conservative Christians

Are you suggesting that we Christians should change our paradigms? And according to what? Could it be according to formal, untheological, paradigms?

But do you know how many things previously formal views have meanwhile been proven wrong? Even when considering only the current formal paradigms, do you know how many times they have changed?

For example, big bang cosmology - along the decades it has had tens of minor changes, and quite a few major changes. And by major I mean things like: the universe is decelerating (now accelerating), it expands into space (now expands with space), the initial ‘explosion’ threw away galaxies readily formed (now we have cosmic evolution), the universe is cyclical (now it’s not, or at least not necessarily) - and others.

So, if formal paradigms (aka formal ‘knowledge’) change so much and so rapidly, why exactly should they be the glasses we’re required to put on when reading the Bible? Why to interpret the universe by worldly theories proven wrong by the very fact of endless change in their claims? Why not instead interpret the universe through God’s Word, the Bible? After all, wasn’t God the one who actually made the universe? Was it Hawking? Was it Krauss?

And:

If the Bible is God’s Word then isn’t it true at all times? What could possibly be the circumstances in which God’s Word isn’t true anymore?

Because the Bible says there is no change in God. Or is that verse part of those verses that we shouldn’t consider to be true? But if so, why to believe in God at all? For example, why to believe that we Christians will go to Heaven, if we claim that God changes His mind? How could we know that He wouldn’t change His mind on that?

So you see, as soon as you make compromises in regard to the Bible, as soon as you drop parts of the Bible and replace them with worldly theories, then it all falls apart.

Oh and to claim a local God (either in time or space, or both), which is implied by your expression (“Conservative Christians”) is equal to claiming no God (Creator) at all. Because God cannot be subject to His own Creation (time or space, in this case). If He obeys time or space or anything else that He created, then He didn’t actually create that particular thing. Which means He didn’t create anything. And if He’s not the Creator, then He’s not God.


often argue that God is the only source of moral authority

Are you claiming that God isn’t “the only source of moral authority”?


and therefore in the absence of belief in God, we cannot have morality.

No. That’s a very wrong conclusion. I am not even aware of a single Christian that makes that assertion. To my knowledge, all Christians, including me, claim that in the absence of God (not in the absence of belief in God) we cannot have morality. And that’s a very different thing.


the clear observation that "morality" varies greatly across human societies (both in time and space), which necessitates that morality is subjective

Could you give me examples of locations, “both in time and space”, where stealing was (is) considered good and no stealing was (is) considered bad?

And I find ironic your claim that “morality is subjective”, since hardcore atheists such as Shermer have had so much trouble in explaining morality outside God, while you on the other hand appear to not have...

A further irony is that Shermer had recently to deal with allegations (if not accusations) of rape…


that leads to the obvious conclusion that humans develop their own morality, oftentimes based on what works to maintain a functioning society.

No, it doesn’t lead to that conclusion. See above.


If God simply imposed His morality upon us, then we would not have true free will.

Of course we would: we would choose between being moral and not being moral. Which is exactly what we do, by the way.
 
Let me be most clear, not that you accuse, but I am not an atheist nor to do I support a scientific method they use

If you’re talking to me, I have made no such accusations, not even by implication. And I’m deeply sorry if I somehow made you feel that way.


Brother now that a hug has been added, I must boast even further concerning your Christian warmth and welcoming spirit, as gratitude permeates greatly, giving exemplar credence to the exampled love of Christ that issues forth from your postings.

Actually, no, I’m not at all an example of love of Christ. Far from it. But I’m working on that. Meanwhile, there are others here who could claim that - kudos to them, not to me.

As for the rest of your comments, I agree with them.
 
Actually, no, I’m not at all an example of love of Christ. Far from it. But I’m working on that. Meanwhile, there are others here who could claim that - kudos to them, not to me.

We've had our disagreements, but you still seem charitable to me. Definitely more so than I am. Kudos to you.
 
In other words if there isn't sound evidence for God's existence, then it remains subject?
It's a matter of perspective. Whether God exists or not is an objective truth from an omniscient perspective. But what about from our perspective? Is the existence or non-existence of the Christian God, Vishnu, or any other Gods an objective truth from a human perspective?

If so, please demonstrate.

I have to disagree here too. Granted, there is plenty of sound evidence for the existence of God, but even if there wasn't, to claim God's existence is subjective only because there isn't any evidence to make that conclusion would be an argument to ignorance. It's an illogical fallacy.
So on what basis and from what perspective do you claim something as an objective truth?
 
No one,

Of course other religious believe they have their own examples of accurate prophecies. For example, it's one of the main things Muslims cite in trying to convert people to their faith (LINK).

As far as the RtB website, I hope you understand that there are some pretty valid counter-arguments to those. For example, the second one listed is, "In approximately 700 B.C. the prophet Micah named the tiny village of Bethlehem as the birthplace of Israel's Messiah (Micah 5:2). The fulfillment of this prophecy in the birth of Christ is one of the most widely known and widely celebrated facts in history."

I know you don't accept it, but there's an alternative explanation for this that is fairly plausible and is consistent with a lot of external evidence. But I don't want to get into a debate over that since we're both Christians and doing so would serve no purpose.

Are you claiming that God isn’t “the only source of moral authority”?
Of course. It's a self-evident fact. Societies that do not believe in God still manage to have their own morals and enforce them. Therefore it's possible to have "moral authority" come from something other than God.

To my knowledge, all Christians, including me, claim that in the absence of God (not in the absence of belief in God) we cannot have morality.
So you believe that humans are completely incapable of coming up with a moral code? That seems bizarre to me. And again, it's that sort of stance that is so easily shot down by atheists and other non-believers.

Could you give me examples of locations, “both in time and space”, where stealing was (is) considered good and no stealing was (is) considered bad?
Um....yeah. The OT is rife with examples of God telling the Israelites, "Kill everyone in that city and take all their stuff". I'm surprised you didn't know that.
 
I hope this will add or decrease to the confusion depending on one’s perspective : )

Subjectivism and Objectivism, I think: negates each other.

If everyone have objective truth: that is a subjective….
If everyone is subjective: that is an objective truth….

Am an objectivist personally, I see subjectivism negates itself, or at least to be diplomatic, it is a paradox…
A paradox is a statement that apparently contradicts itself and yet might be true

I like to think I am an objectivist personally……

But a subjectivist on respecting one’s opinion : )

how it happens? i migth be subjectivist after all : )
 
If you’re talking to me, I have made no such accusations, not even by implication. And I’m deeply sorry if I somehow made you feel that way.

No apology necessary my friend, I enjoy your knowledgeable contributions

Actually, no, I’m not at all an example of love of Christ. Far from it. But I’m working on that. Meanwhile, there are others here who could claim that - kudos to them, not to me.

As for the rest of your comments, I agree with them.


Can I at least say that you are most humble and kind?
 
Whether God exists or not is an objective truth from an omniscient perspective.

Let me inform you that the “objective truth” can only be God Himself. And that the “omniscient perspective” can only be God Himself.


As far as the RtB website, I hope you understand that there are some pretty valid counter-arguments to those.

As long as you agree that you’ll never get lower than 10^80, I couldn’t care less. And you know the reason for why I hold to that number.

So, show me Hindu predictions amounting to 1 in 10^80. Looking forward.



Of course. It's a self-evident fact. Societies that do not believe in God still manage to have their own morals and enforce them. Therefore it's possible to have "moral authority" come from something other than God.

Did you even read what I said previously?

It’s the 5th time (if not more) that you address what you imagine I say, instead of what I actually say. A dialogue cannot continue in such conditions.


So you believe that humans are completely incapable of coming up with a moral code? That seems bizarre to me.

Of course it seems, since you don’t appear to believe the Bible.


And again, it's that sort of stance that is so easily shot down by atheists and other non-believers.

I think I already asked you for that, because to my knowledge atheists actually have a huge problem explaining morality. You on the other hand, seem to not have problems explaining morality outside God, so let’s see it.


The OT is rife with examples of God telling the Israelites, "Kill everyone in that city and take all their stuff". I'm surprised you didn't know that.

Then why do you believe in the Bible? Or let me guess: you only believe in the New Testament…

But that would render Jesus meaningless…

And I’m surprised that you believe that that’s all that God did. Let me inform you that in fact he destroyed the entire humanity except for 8 people. And yes, the God of the Old Testament is exactly the God of the New Testament. So if you think that God is only love, think again. He’s also justice.


Of course other religious believe they have their own examples of accurate prophecies. For example, it's one of the main things Muslims cite in trying to convert people to their faith (LINK).

That link of yours isn’t a link at all. So tell me when you have the evidence required in support of your claim.

Especially make sure it’s about major predictions (such as the ones that I mentioned in regard to the Bible).
 
No one,

As long as you continue to post in an insulting manner and question my faith, I won't bother engaging you. I hope you understand.
 
No one, As long as you continue to post in an insulting manner and question my faith, I won't bother engaging you. I hope you understand.

Where exactly was I posting in an insulting manner? When I said that the “objective truth” can only be God Himself?

Or was it when I asked you to show me the Hindu predictions with the chance of 1 10^80?

Or was it when I told you the n-th time (if not more) to actually read what I write, not what you imagine that I write? Because let me tell you that I do find insulting to have to repeat the very same thing endlessly.

As for questioning your faith, I think I asked you this – and received no answer: do you believe in the Bible? Yes or no, please. I’m not interested in any other answer.
 
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