The Godhead of the Lord Jesus

The reasons why is it's becoming more "popular" is because the people who having ears to hear are finally beginning to hear when they do the full search of scripture. Godhead is mentioned three times in KJV and yes meaning godlike, divine=godlike, and in both G2305 and G2320 say (abstractly) divinity yes it says abstractly before both divinities.







What is G2305 and G2350?
 
Read the following very carefully, because it seems that you failed to understand what John said.


(1 John 1: 8-10) “If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness.If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liarand his word has no place in our lives.”


You need to see John was saying if one says he or she says they have never sinned they are liars.


If one is forgiven of all unrighteousness are they not then sinless? Could they then be liars if they say they are sinless?


John later says:


(1 John 3:3-9) “Surely everyone who entertains this hope must purify himself, must try to be as pure as Christ. Any one who sins at all breaks the law, because to sin is to seen Him or known Him. My children do not let anyone lead you astray’ to live a holy life is to be holy just as He is holy’ to lead a sinful life is to belong the Devil, since the Devil was a sinner from the beginning. It was to undo all that the Devil has done that the Son of God appeared. No one who has been begotten by God sins: because God’s seed remains inside him, he cannot sin when he has been begotten by God.”


(1 John 3:8) “He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work”


John told us those who did not know God sinned and asked forgiveness and were forgiven, but once a person comes to know God he or she will not sin.


Scripture goes on to say that if a person who does know God uses their free will to sin there is no repentance for that person.


(Hebrews 10:26-31) “If, after we have been given knowledge of the truth, we should deliberately commit any sins, then there is no longer any sacrifice for them. There is left only the dreadful prospect of judgment and of the fiery wrath that is to devour your enemies. Anyone who disregards the Law of Moses is ruthlessly put to death on the word of two witnesses or three; and you may be sure that anyone who tramples on the Son of God, and who treats the blood of the covenant which sanctified him as if it were not holy, and who insults the Spirit of grace, will be condemned to a far severer punishment. We are all aware who it was that said: Vengeance is mine; I will vindicate his people. It is a dreadful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.”


(Hebrews 6: 4) “As for those people who were once brought into the light, and tasted the gift from heaven, and received a share of the Holy Spirit, and appreciated the good message of God and the powers of the world to come and yet in spite of this have fallen away it is impossible for that to be renewed a second time. They cannot be repentant if they have willfully crucified the Son of God and openly mocked Him.”

I have never met or spoke with anyone who claimed that since they came to Christ, they no longer break any laws, or sin. Do you mean you never even inadvertently sin, or even presumptuously sin? Am I hearing you correctly?

I'm sorry if I sound incredulous...but what I'm gathering is that you are claiming you are living a perfect life now.

We are considered righteous to God because He views us through the righteous Blood of Jesus Christ and we "put on" His righteousness (like wearing a cloak of righteousness that is from Him)...it is not our own righteousness (the cloak does not make us righteous; it hides our unrighteousness from God)...!

I mean, we both know God still sees our sin, but He calls us righteous because we have accepted His Son's righteousness. We are motivated to strive for a perfect/sinless life because we understand the profoundness of what Jesus has done for us; but we will never attain that perfect/sinless life until we are in Heaven.

So, I ask you again...do you never even inadvertently or presumptuously sin???
 
The reasons why is it's becoming more "popular" is because the people who having ears to hear are finally beginning to hear when they do the full search of scripture. Godhead is mentioned three times in KJV and yes meaning godlike, divine=godlike, and in both G2305 and G2320 say (abstractly) divinity yes it says abstractly before both divinities. So my point is Godhead means godlike. Jesus was godlike because he was having God manifest through him. God manifests through us all but we claim ourselves as man just like Jesus did Son of Man. Also, fun fact I learned about John 20:28 where Thomas says "My Lord and My God" we hdan't translated it like how it was is original Greek. In koine Greek this becomes and idiom which makes it into actually saying "my godly Lord". Same thing in this

I indeed baptize you with water unto repentance: but he that cometh after me is mightier than I, whose shoes I am not worthy to bear: he shall baptize you with the Holy Ghost, and with fire:
This doesn't mean we get two individual things. It becomes an idiom in greek which means "with the firey Holy Ghost"

Make sense now? I'm done with this debate though because I already made a thread that got locked for some reason 2 days ago that's okay.
Remember Prove all things that includes verses that either sound unitarian or trinitarian. Understand what words in the original greek or hebrew meant it helps.

If Jesus apparently is God and man then numbers 29:13 i guess shouldn't exist.

19
God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good? God is saying in blue what he absolutely is not. And then in red God knows that a man who knows the truth knows now that he has lied to himself and then repents because he finally figures out who God is. This is exactly what I did when I searched through the scriptures. I found that through a doctrine of man that i learned i believed the lie. But once I learned who God and Jesus really was I repented

You know what this is everyone. A prophecy for people who believe that God is also a man AKA Jesus Christ??: that he should lie. neither the son of man AKA Jesus is a Son of Man, that he should repent. Right there God is saying that people who are saying he's a man which that is what Trinitarians claim Jesus is "God part and man part" are lieing to themselves. NEITHER is he the son of man. Jesus refers to himself as the Son of God True BUT also the Son of Man Also True. But God is neither the son of man. and if you truly see that this makes sense God says, that he should repent. God is predicting that the people who are seeing this were lieing to themselves and being led to repentance.

God is good.

Context everyone keep searching the scriptures. God would not make it a "complex" understanding of who he truly is. Trinitarians say that it's complex meaning the understanding of the Trinity. Unitarians see through true search through the scriptures and by the help of the Spirit to understand scripture that it's absolute.



God Bless

In Numbers 29:13, Jesus had not come to the earth yet. The Book of Numbers was written a little over 1400 years BEFORE God came to earth as Jesus, so of course He was not a man nor a Son of man at that time.
 
Romans 3:23 "For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,"

1 John 1:10
"If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us."

Jer. 17:9, 10
"The heart is the most deceitful thing there is, and desperately wicked. No one can really know how bad it is! Only the Lord knows!"

Psalm 14:2, 3
"The Lord looks down from heaven on all mankind to see if there are any who are wise, who want to please God. But no, all have strayed away; all are rotten with sin. Not one is good, not one!"

Is. 64:5, 6.
"We are all infected and impure with sin. When we put on our prized robes of righteousness we find they are but filthy rags."

It should be the goal of every Christian to “sin no more,” although we recognize that, while we are in the flesh, we will still stumble and we will sin. (1 John 1:8).

God’s desire for each of us is to be holy as He is holy (1 Peter 1:16). We still sin, but sin is no longer a lifestyle choice (1 John 3:9–10). When we fail, we can come to God and ask forgiveness (1 John 1:9; 1 Peter 4:1–2). And if we are truly God’s children, He will correct us, disciplining us when we need it (Hebrews 12:6–11). His work is to conform us to the image of His Son (Romans 8:29).

But to say and believe that we do not sin after coming to Christ is an un-Biblical thought and has no basis in the Scriptures as far as I can tell.
Read my post #34
 
Read my post #34
So, you are unwilling to go so far as to say that you are living a perfectly sinless life now, with no inadvertent or presumptuous sins... In your own words please, because I am asking YOU personally... not the Bible.

If you truly are living a perfectly sinless now, this should be an easy question for you.
 
So, you are unwilling to go so far as to say that you are living a perfectly sinless life now, with no inadvertent or presumptuous sins... In your own words please, because I am asking YOU personally... not the Bible.

If you truly are living a perfectly sinless now, this should be an easy question for you.
Yes!
 
Do you know anyone else who is living a perfectly sinless life? Do you belong to a church where the members believe the same as you?

I have never heard of this before...so I am very curious to learn how many others there are who believe this way....
The Early Christians knew that a Spiritual Christian did not sin.

That understanding was lost, I believe when the Church stopped obeying God.

The Holy Spirit started teaching me this truth very early in my ministry. I had a hard time telling people what was being taught to me. It became a big fight every time. I did not care to fight about what God was teaching me so would just back away.

Then Jesus came to me and had me open the bible to where it tells us a Christian does not sin. Jesus explained the scriptures to me.

After that I no longer backed away from those who could not believe one can live without sinning.

Now after almost forty years of my sharing, there are very few people who willingly take to me.

No I only know of one other person in this world who is being led by God to not sin.

One has to have the indwelling of God to be able to live without sinning.

To have the indwelling of God one has to be living all of God’s Commandments. I know of no church that is teaching all of God’s Commandments.

(John 14: 23) “Anyone who loves me will keep my word and my Father will love him, and we shall come to him and make a home in him.”
 
I'm trying not to be argumentative but this is a topic that I feel is worth debating. It is relatively easy to accept that Jesus was a man, since he ate, drank, wept, became tired, etc. Even after his resurrection he asked Thomas to touch his hands.

His deity is a more difficult concept, but I think the Bible teaches it. What about John 1, which says, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." Later, verse 14 explains, "And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth."

Jesus himself said he came from heaven (John 3:13, John 6:62). He is described as the creator in Col. 1:16. Jesus said, "I and the Father are one" in John 10:30 (Maybe this could be interpreted, "I and the Father are of one essence" or something like that, but I still think it is a claim to equality with God. Otherwise why would the people have wanted to stone him?)

Finally, there is Isaiah 9:6, which says, "For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder, and his name shall be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."
"the Word was God" is still not proving that Jesus is the LORD! You have to understand already here before anything that when you realize Jesus Christ is not God but the Son of God that the word "God" in John 1:1 becomes its adjective definition of Christ "godly"

G2316 theos theh'-os of uncertain affinity; a deity, especially (with 3588) the supreme Divinity; figuratively, a magistrate; by Hebraism, very:--X exceeding, God,
god(-ly, -ward).

And now I'm going to prove through scripture that Christ clearly says that he is not God but the Son of God by looking at what was discussed after and before John 10:30

Joh 10:29 My Father, which
gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
Christ clearly says he was only given us the sheep by the Father because the Father is greater than all.

Joh 10:30 I and my Father are
one. Christ and his Father have the same purpose, to save the lost.

Joh 10:31
Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. The Jews picked up stones for some reason to kill Christ but we do not know the reason yet.

Joh 10:32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you
from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
Jesus clearly shows that the works/miracles that he performed came from the power of the Father which was given to Christ on earth. (Matthew 28:18 ) IMPORTANT Jesus asks them why they want to stone so the Jews have a reason to stone them in their minds.


Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not;
but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. IMPORTANT The Jews say that Jesus Christ made himself God. Notice how it's the Jews opinion that he made himself God. BUT CHRIST CORRECTS THERE BLASPHEMY!!!


Joh 10:34 Jesus answered them,
Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
Same concordance definition as theos G2316 saying they are godly.


Joh 10:35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;

Joh 10:36
1.Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, 2. and sent into the world, 3.THOU BLASPHEMEST; 4.because I said, I am the Son of God?
1. The FATHER sanctified Christ:Which means made Christ holy not Christ made himself holy.

2. The Father sent Christ for the lost and to be the holy sacrifice for the world!

3. IMPORTANT IMPORTANT!!! Christ CLEARLY says here that they
blasphemest but what did the blaspheme about??? GO BACK UP TO WHAT THE JEWS SAID IN John 10:33 "...but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God." CHRIST SAYS THAT WHAT THEY SAID IN THEIR OPINION of saying "I and the Father are one" they thought he "makest himself God".

4. "
because I said, I am the Son of God?" He said it in a ? question because obviously he sees that there opinion of Christ when he said "I and the Father are one" was meant to show they have the same purpose to fulfill what was always prophesied but he's saying "paraphrased" I am the Son of God??? YOU blasphemest because YOU said I make my myself the Father.

I hope and pray that you clearly see and have ears to hear what Christ is saying!!!

 
1. The FATHER sanctified Christ

2. The Father sent Christ for the lost and to be the holy sacrifice for the world!

These two points are both true, and they are also part of Trinitarian doctrine.

3. IMPORTANT IMPORTANT!!! Christ CLEARLY says here that they
blasphemest but what did the blaspheme about??? GO BACK UP TO WHAT THE JEWS SAID IN "...but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God." CHRIST SAYS THAT WHAT THEY SAID IN THEIR OPINION of saying "I and the Father are one" they thought he "makest himself God".

4. "because I said, I am the Son of God?" He said it in a ? question because obviously he sees that there opinion of Christ when he said "I and the Father are one" was meant to show they have the same purpose to fulfill what was always prophesied but he's saying "paraphrased" I am the Son of God??? YOU blasphemest because YOU said I make my myself the Father.

36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

"Thou blasphemest" isn't Jesus accusing them of blasphemy, it's a quote of them accusing Him of blasphemy. It's a question simply because He's asking them a question.

Consider the Young's Literal Translation rendering:
36 of him whom the Father did sanctify, and send to the world, do ye say -- Thou speakest evil, because I said, Son of God I am?

And the NASB
36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, I am the Son of God’?

Not that the KJV rendering is "incorrect," but the sentence is structured to reflect the speech of a particular time and place. It may be helpful to you to read several translations when studying for comparison.
 
The truth of who God is would not be some complex hidden understanding that we don't get!

Where does the scripture teach that? And if the scripture doesn't teach it, why should anyone believe it?

You use this belief as a premise through which you interpret scripture. But why do you believe this is true?
 

These two points are both true, and they are also part of Trinitarian doctrine.



36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

"Thou blasphemest" isn't Jesus accusing them of blasphemy, it's a quote of them accusing Him of blasphemy. It's a question simply because He's asking them a question.

Consider the Young's Literal Translation rendering:
36 of him whom the Father did sanctify, and send to the world, do ye say -- Thou speakest evil, because I said, Son of God I am?

And the NASB
36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, I am the Son of God’?

Not that the KJV rendering is "incorrect," but the sentence is structured to reflect the speech of a particular time and place. It may be helpful to you to read several translations when studying for comparison.
No the KJV says it right. I don't look at other translations anymore because many use Codex Vaticanus and Sinaiaticus. Now your debate with me has now become a debate of translation. KJV is showing the truth for what it really. Let the popular translations deceive you then I proved my case and you wanted to change my statement because it's a different translation. Sorry but im not making the same mistake with looking at other translations that even omit the word of God
 
Where does the scripture teach that? And if the scripture doesn't teach it, why should anyone believe it?

You use this belief as a premise through which you interpret scripture. But why do you believe this is true?
Because God throughout the Old Testament is proving that he alone is the One true God. New Testament continues to do that but man took what Christ said in translations and misunderstood it. It became popular and "official" because of the Nicene Creed. Did you know who baptized Constantine? A believer in Arianism. Arius in his debate was even slapped at the Council and was exiled being labeled as a heretic. This Council also voted on when to place Easter the popular pagan holiday that's still popular today does that make the holiday right since a council accepted it?! Why should I trust this Council? We followed a man made tradition. I'm done with this. Search the scriptures otherwise when Christ comes back we will truly know the truth when he's back and many will be ashamed in the lie that many men have and were taught to believe. I'm really happy and grateful that God showed me the truth.

God Bless everyone...
 
Now your debate with me has now become a debate of translation.

The KVJ translation is correct. What I'm suggesting is that you've translated the KJV into modern English incorrectly.

"A debate of translation" is what this has always been. Whenever the KJV states that Jesus is God, you claim it is a mistranslation, do you not?

For example, you don't seem to believe that the KJV translated John 20:28 accurately.
 
The Early Christians knew that a Spiritual Christian did not sin.

That understanding was lost, I believe when the Church stopped obeying God.

The Holy Spirit started teaching me this truth very early in my ministry. I had a hard time telling people what was being taught to me. It became a big fight every time. I did not care to fight about what God was teaching me so would just back away.

Then Jesus came to me and had me open the bible to where it tells us a Christian does not sin. Jesus explained the scriptures to me.

After that I no longer backed away from those who could not believe one can live without sinning.

Now after almost forty years of my sharing, there are very few people who willingly take to me.

No I only know of one other person in this world who is being led by God to not sin.

One has to have the indwelling of God to be able to live without sinning.

To have the indwelling of God one has to be living all of God’s Commandments. I know of no church that is teaching all of God’s Commandments.

(John 14: 23) “Anyone who loves me will keep my word and my Father will love him, and we shall come to him and make a home in him.”

The Spirit imparts a grace to avoid sin. It does not impart infallibility nor impeccability.

A few cultish groups arose in the Early church which demanded the church was of saints not sinners. These are now universally condemned.
 
Because God throughout the Old Testament is proving that he alone is the One true God.
.

Yes, but that is also an essential element of Trinitarian doctrine.

I don't understand why we should need to expect God to be fully comprehensible to us, when the scriptures teach that He is beyond our understanding.
 
Because God throughout the Old Testament is proving that he alone is the One true God. New Testament continues to do that but man took what Christ said in translations and misunderstood it. It became popular and "official" because of the Nicene Creed. Did you know who baptized Constantine? A believer in Arianism. Arius in his debate was even slapped at the Council and was exiled being labeled as a heretic. This Council also voted on when to place Easter the popular pagan holiday that's still popular today does that make the holiday right since a council accepted it?! Why should I trust this Council? We followed a man made tradition. I'm done with this. Search the scriptures otherwise when Christ comes back we will truly know the truth when he's back and many will be ashamed in the lie that many men have and were taught to believe. I'm really happy and grateful that God showed me the truth.

God Bless everyone...

Constantine was not baptized by an Arian, and I highly doubt any Arian would try to baptize him. Constantine was baptized later in his life after the Council of Nicaea, after Arians had been expelled from the Empire.

Inspite of this, gnosticism was actually more popular than arianism.

Do you think Gnosticism is a valid belief system?
 
The Spirit imparts a grace to avoid sin. It does not impart infallibility nor impeccability.

A few cultish groups arose in the Early church which demanded the church was of saints not sinners. These are now universally condemned.
Do you have any scripture to confirm your opinion?
 
The KVJ translation is correct. What I'm suggesting is that you've translated the KJV into modern English incorrectly.

"A debate of translation" is what this has always been. Whenever the KJV states that Jesus is God, you claim it is a mistranslation, do you not?

For example, you don't seem to believe that the KJV translated John 20:28 accurately.
The KJV is the closest english translation as far as accuracy to the original greek and hebrew then any other english Bible possibly could argue the Geneva Bible since they used the TR too. When you do research on these topics and things about our translations of course I might see certain things that could be misinterpreted in the KJV. I'll correct myself I have looked at other translations actually for a certain reason like I like how some refer to hades as the "hell" right now when unbelieves pass before Christ comes back then. the real hell will come that was talked about. The KJV didn't make that as clear but really both are a place of punishment so you could call both hell really. But that's really the only thing that I like about the new ones tbh...
 
Constantine was not baptized by an Arian, and I highly doubt any Arian would try to baptize him. Constantine was baptized later in his life after the Council of Nicaea, after Arians had been expelled from the Empire.

Inspite of this, gnosticism was actually more popular than arianism.

Do you think Gnosticism is a valid belief system?
No I do not think gnosticism was a valuable belief.

and yes Eusebius of Nicodemia did baptized Constantine! Eusebius was a pupil of the same man Arius was pupil of,Lucian of Antioch. Lucian had the same beliefs of Arianism before Arianism became Arianism. So that showing that this truth was being passed down by great men. Lucian was also known for playing a part in the Textus Receptus.
 
Back
Top