Are you sure that it is "misinterpretation"????
I submit to all that it was by blatant rejection of the Word of God.
Matthew 19 : 3-6 (KJV):...........
3 "The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause? 4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? 6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
He who made them at the beginning “made them male and female”: In quoting Genesis 1:27, Jesus indicated first that God has made men and women different, and that God is the one who joins men and women together in marriage. With this statement reported by Matthew, Jesus has asserted God’s authority over marriage; it is God’s institution, not man’s – so it is fair to say that GOD's rules apply in marriage - NOT any church's warped interpretation or lack of proper understanding.
Since the sin of homosexuality is clearly defined by the Word of God, I submit that it was a thought out rejection because that is what they wanted to do. When that is done, that means they have rejected the Word of God which in essence means they have no RESPECT for what God said.