As I was reading
Praying in Tongues about what Godmademefunky was asking. I thought about something else in reference to speaking in tongues but did not want to 'derail' that post and add confusion to that post and therefore started this post.
Quote:
When the actual tongue is spoken. It it really the tongues you hear 'southern' Pentecostals speak that sound phonetically like:
"rhonda-konda-shonda-honda-see-me-tie-my-bowtie-hyundai'
or is the tongue an real actual language/dialect of a known language spoken somewhere in the world today? For example. An american speaks normal english but when speaking in tongues while praying to God is actually speaking perfectly a dialect/language (let's say for example "Swahilli") specifically traced to a certain geographical part of the world that they have never taken lessons to fluently speak/ translate that language nor never visited that part of the world.
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The real reason why I am asking is that when I re-read the
Acts 2 story, the way verses 6-11 state, it makes me want to believe that the actual tongue of speaking in tongues is actually a known dialect/language spoken somewhere in the world today?
That would also raise up a question about the gift of interpreting tongues whether the gift is actually interpreting
rhonda-konda-shonda-honda-see-me-tie-my-bowtie-hyundai'
or interpreting a dialect/language (let's say for example "Swahilli") specifically traced to a certain geographical part of the world that they have never taken lessons to fluently speak/ translate that language nor never visited that part of the world.
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I am really wondering now.....